Integrating $\frac{dv}{dt}=g-kv^2$ from $v=0$ to $v_t$

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around integrating the differential equation \(\frac{dv}{dt} = g - kv^2\), with the goal of determining the time \(t_f\) when the velocity \(v\) reaches a known terminal velocity \(v_t\). Participants are exploring the integration process and the appearance of hyperbolic functions in the solution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss separating variables for integration and express uncertainty about how to incorporate hyperbolic functions into their solution. There are attempts to clarify the integration limits and the relationship between velocity and time.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered insights into the integration process and the properties of hyperbolic functions, while others express confusion about the steps involved. There is an ongoing exploration of the mathematical relationships without a clear consensus on the final approach.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework problem, which may limit the information they can provide or the methods they can use. There is also a mention of a known constant terminal velocity \(v_t\), which is central to the problem.

Locrian
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I'm missing something simple here:

[tex]\frac{d\mbox{v}}{d\mbox{t}} = g - k\mbox{v}^2[/tex]

I'm integrating from v=0 to v=v_t (where v_t is a known constant independent of velocity and time) and from t=0 to t=t_f, where t_f is the variable I wish to solve for in the end.

I'd rather not embarrass myself by giving out the answer I produced. The actual answer has a hyperbolic tangent and I honestly am not sure how to get that. Could someone nudge me in the right direction?
 
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The inverse of the hyperbolic tangent, the Artanh function is given by:
[tex]Artanh(x)=log(\frac{1+x}{1-x})[/tex]
 
You can separate the variables and integrate:

[tex]\int_{0}^{v(t<br /> )}\frac{dv}{g-kv^2}=\int_0^t t'dt'[/tex]
 
Aha! And the derivative of that is:

[tex]\frac{1}{1-x^2}[/tex] Which should take care of the problem. If only it had seemed more obvious before I had to ask! Thank you for your time arildno.
 
Thank you too for helping Galileo. I'm afraid this seems rather obvious in retrospect, which I thought it might be.

Have a good friday.
 
I'm sorry, I made a mistake:
We should have:
[tex]Artanh(x)=\frac{1}{2}log(\frac{1+x}{1-x})[/tex]
This can be seen by solving for "y" from the following equation:
[tex]x=Tanh(y)\equiv\frac{e^{y}-e^{-y}}{e^{y}+e^{-y}}[/tex]
 
Last edited:

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