Originally posted by I, Brian
Finge probably sounded like an unfortunate use of the term.
Not unfortunate, just inaccurate when applied to the current effort to quantize general relativity.
Originally posted by I, Brian
However, there's nothing necessarily demeaning about being on the "fringe" of mainstream scientific theories. Or perhaps I've trying to save grace by avoiding addressing the populer use of the term. :)
I don't imagine that, as you apply it, the word is at all pejorative. I don't presume to understand your use of words, however inappropriate. Quantizing general relativity is a long-standing mainstream focus of research going back to Dirac and Wheeler---major people have thought it important and contributed to its progress over the years: Ashtekar most recently.
Originally posted by I, Brian
As for the article in question - I'll leave that for peer review. :)
If you are interested in peer-reviewed publications the main journal relevant to quantizing general relativity is "Classical and Quantum Gravity". However the article in question (by Bojowald)
was published in "Physical Review Letters" vol 86, pp 5227-5230 (2001). Since then a number of papers about the removal of the classical singularity at time zero have appeared by a half dozen or so other researchers as well as those I've mentioned, some as co-authors. The past couple of years have seen a lot of work on this in several parts of the world. I interpret this as a significant peer response.
Originally posted by I, Brian
Until any single generally accepted theoretical framework arises from that, then there really is no basis for claiming that gravity has been successfully quantised.
I am not sure who you are telling this to or why you are saying it. There would not be so much work on it going on if general relativity had already been satisfactorily and finally quantized. The fact is that there are very interesting open questions and topics for research in the field!
No one has declared the research finished as yet, and since things are in flux, I would urge we not use biased language suggesting that there is a singularity at time zero except as an artifact of the classical model.
The classical EQUATIONS (already more than 80 years old) fail at time zero and do not go back farther. But I see no reason to suppose that nature itself fails at time zero and does not go back before that. Particularly since the models under development do evolve smoothly back to before the classical time zero.
It would seem that the burden is on you to supply evidence if you presume that the timeline ends in a kind of precipice at time zero.