Convergence of Series: Ratio Test and Error Analysis

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series \(\sum\frac{(n!)^2}{(2n)!}\) from \(n=1\) to infinity, with a focus on applying the ratio test and analyzing potential errors in the calculation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the ratio test but encounters a limit that suggests divergence. They question where their reasoning may have gone wrong.
  • Some participants point out potential errors in the original poster's application of the ratio test, specifically regarding the factorial terms involved.
  • Others suggest comparing the series to a known convergent series to further analyze convergence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on the original poster's approach and pointing out possible mistakes. There is no explicit consensus yet, but several lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are examining the factorial function's properties and the implications of the ratio test, indicating a need for careful simplification in the calculations. The original poster's confusion about the factorial terms suggests a deeper exploration of the definitions involved.

thenewbosco
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How do i show the following series from n=1 to infinity converges?
[tex]\sum\frac{(n!)^2}{(2n)!}[/tex]
what i did was apply the ratio test so i ended up with
the limit as n--> infinity of
[tex]\frac{((n+1)^2)(n!)^2}{(2(n+1))!(2n)!}(\frac{((2n)!}{(n!)^2})[/tex]

then after the cancelation of the factorial terms, this limit goes to infinity...
however this series converges by the answer i have for this problem. where did i go wrong?

thanks
 
Last edited:
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For one, it appears you have an extra (2n)! in your denominator. You also appear to have an extra bracket in the top-right area, not that it matters. But I got that the limit goes to 1/4, so the series converges. I don't know how you got infinity. The extra (2n)! in the denominator should have made it converge even "more", so I'm not sure what kind of cancelling you did.

You can also compare this to [itex]\sum _{n = 1} ^{\infty} 2^{-n}[/itex] using induction to see that it converges. Note that (n!)²/(2n)! = [itex]{{2n}\choose{n}} ^{-1}[/itex].
 
Last edited:
Ignore my initial response, I misread the problem.

You went wrong rewriting [itex](2(n+1))![/itex] as [itex]2(n+1))!(2n)![/itex].

Go back to the definition of the factorial function. You will see that:

[itex](2(n+1))!=(2n+2)!=(2n+2)(2n+1)(2n)![/itex]
 
Your problem is probably that you tried to do several steps at once and messed up: try just writing the ratio first, then simplifying.
 

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