Why doesnt Bertrand's postulate imply Legendre's conjecture?
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Jul20-09, 09:54 PM
Can anyone explain why they say that Bertrand's postulate
imply Legendre's conjecture?
Yes. Bertrand's Postulate shows that there is a prime between n^2 and 2n^2, not in the far shorter interval n^2 to (n+1)^2. You'd need something just slightly stronger than the Riemann Hypothesis to get that.