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John O' Meara
Aug5-09, 07:46 PM
P: 330
I didn't know that "g(x) is one to one if and only if g(a)=g(b), etc,". I know that if (a,b)is a point on the graph of y=g(x) then b=g(a), which is equivalent to the statement that [tex] a=g^{-1}(b)[/tex], which means that (b,a) is a point on the graph of g_inverse. And that then g and g_inverse are symmetrical about the line y=x.