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dodo
#2
Jan17-10, 04:15 AM
P: 688
Given that
[tex]a^{p-1} = a^{ke+r} \equiv a^e \equiv 1 \pmod p[/tex]
you are to prove that r=0. Consider that
[tex]a^{ke+r} = a^{ke} a^r = (a^{e})^k a^r[/tex]
(now, doing some more work, where can you get at?)
and remember that r<e.