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Andrew Mason
Sep28-04, 06:39 PM
Sci Advisor
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Quote Quote by ZapperZ
But you just answered your own question. If it is NOT a point charge, then you'll never get to an infinite potential. So what's the problem?
If the proton was a perfect sphere with positive charge distributed uniformly over the surface, the [itex]1/r^2[/itex] force would apply only down to the surface (EM force would be 0 inside). But the proton is not a perfect sphere. It is a wave function that has rather fuzzy boundaries. It seems that the existence of the strong nuclear force is based on the assumption that EM repulsion continues to follow the [itex]1/r^2[/itex] relationship to a point that appears to be within that fuzzy boundary.

Do you even KNOW what the "existing theory" is, i.e. have you studied QFT, QED, and QCD? Or is this questioning simply based on ignorance that you acquired via reading pop-science books?
I am just asking questions. All questions are based on ignorance. Otherwise, why ask the question?

I don't pretend to have more than a rudimentary grasp of quantum theory. I studied it as an undergraduate in physics but that was many years ago. And I ended up as a lawyer.

The discovery of the quarks AND the verification of the hirerchy of the quark model ARE the evidence of the strong force! QCD includes ALL the strong interactions and decay channels that make predicitons on what and where to look in a particle collider.
My question was: What evidence is there that protons repel protons with enormous EM force ([itex]\propto 1/r^2[/itex]) that continues down to the 'surface of the proton'.

Andrew Mason