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Nov6-11, 07:31 AM
Yes, if he redefines F*dt as an instantaneous impulse given to the proton, then it works out the same. So the only thing he's done 'wrong' is to assume that we have the technology to make such a thing, right?
Edit: (it doesn't necessarily need to be an instantaneous impulse, but an impulse which is over a very small amount of time, as if he had a hand-held particle accelerator.)
That's no hand-held particle accelerator. It is a 3000+ kilometer long, 2000 yotta electron volt proton accelerator. And no, we don't have the technology to make such a device.