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 Quote by PhilDSP We could argue that the value becomes 1 when $\phi = 1$ couldn't we?
No, you can't define a function one way and then argue that it has a different definition. You can, however, define a function that is 1 when $\phi = 1$ and equal to -1 elsewhere. You can argue that this definition applies to a certain practical situation. That would be an argument about physics.