Thread: Lorentz force
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Feb3-12, 07:44 AM   #3
 
Quote by tiny-tim View Post

No.
Why?
My particle is moving along z and v=[0,0,vz]
of course it will have a displacement along x and y but the intial velocity has only one component.
Could you please explain your point?

Quote by tiny-tim View Post
Where do the 1/v come from?


it comes from the differential equation:
dvx/dt=qEx/m
dvy/dt=qBxvz/m

I change the variable t in z... it is a bit of algebra I can write you everything if you want so you can double check my manipulation.