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Feb23-12, 01:47 AM
P: 800
Quote Quote by kebabs View Post
Please I really need help with this hw question

Prove without trig identity that f`(x)=0 for

You're not supposed to use the obvious identity that simplifies this? I suppose you could just use the derivatives of sin and cos along with the chain rule to directly compute the derivative. But eventually you'll need to simplify using some trig identity.