how about this thought/idea:
the measurement at A sets the polarization of photon A and the measurement of B (independently
) sets the polarization of photon B in a same/correlated manner
i.e. you don't need to assume any kind of quantum entanglement i.e. any kind of non-local nonlocal quantum correlations because:
A and B had similar initial conditions to begin with (at the time of their generation/birth/creation) and hence the polarizers effect them in the same way, which could result in some kind of biasing in probabilities...
just playing devil's advocate.....to complete a full proof test of quantum entanglement....
for example twins (humans not photons...;)...) behavior (tastes, preferences, personality) will tend to be more closely correlated (with each other) than the general population