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saltydog is offline
Oct8-05, 12:47 PM
Sci Advisor
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Quote Quote by mathwurkz
Hi How would I find the inverse laplace transform of this?

[tex] I(s) = \left( \frac{1}{s(1+e^{-s})}\right) \left( \frac{1}{Ls+R}\right)[/tex]

L, R are constants. I recognize the first term to be a geometric progression (square-wave function). With an infinite number of terms in that progression I don't think I could use convolution here. I could also try partial fractions but don't know how to do it with that exponential in the denominator. Someone please help.
Well I don't know if I've become too reliant on Mathematica but what I would do would be first to see what it reports, then work backward to see how it was figured out. But Mathematica can't solve it; suppose I could review all the techniques I can think of but well, curious if it's a simple matter that just the math jocks at Wolfram can't.