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Dopey Question about Bell's theorem. 
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#1
Dec403, 01:27 PM

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For context I'm looking at:
http://www.mtnmath.com/whatrh/node80.html Bell's theorem suggests that a hidden variable λ cannot exist, but, at least the version above makes the assumption that Λ (the set of all posible values of λ ) is a measurable domain s.t. [tex]\int_{\Lambda} f(\lambda)d\lambda[/tex] is welldefined. Is there a version of Bell's theorem that does not rely on the ability to integrate the probability function of λ? 


#2
Dec403, 05:46 PM

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Found it. Apparently Bell does assume that the hidden variable is in a measurable domain, and Pitowksy produced a model based on unmeasurable sets that avoids the issue.



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