Dopey Question about Bell's theorem.

NateTG

For context I'm looking at:
http://www.mtnmath.com/whatrh/node80.html

Bell's theorem suggests that a hidden variable λ cannot exist, but, at least the version above makes the assumption that Λ (the set of all posible values of λ ) is a measurable domain s.t.
[tex]\int_{\Lambda} f(\lambda)d\lambda[/tex]

is well-defined.

Is there a version of Bell's theorem that does not rely on the ability to integrate the probability function of λ?

NateTG

Found it. Apparently Bell does assume that the hidden variable is in a measurable domain, and Pitowksy produced a model based on unmeasurable sets that avoids the issue.