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elliptic integral

 
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Mar28-09, 05:07 AM   #1
 

elliptic integral


When replacing x with 1/kx then

[tex]
\int_{1/k}^\infty {\left[ {\left( {x^2 - 1} \right)\left( {k^2 x^2 - 1} \right)} \right]} ^{ - 1/2} dx = \int\limits_0^1 {\left[ {\left( {\frac{1}{{k^2 x^2 }} - 1} \right)\left( {\frac{1}{{x^2 }} - 1} \right)} \right]} ^{ - 1/2} \frac{{dx}}{{kx^2 }}
[/tex]

I do not see how. Why ranges the LHS integral over infinity, whereas the RHS from 0 to 1?

Any help and hints very much appreciated.

thanks
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Mar28-09, 05:53 AM   #2
 
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As x goes from 1/k to infinity, kx goes from 1 to infinity, and 1/kx goes from 1 to 0. Make the change of variable u= 1/kx and then, since both u and x are "dummy variables", replace u with x.
Mar30-09, 01:04 AM   #3
 
thank you
Apr7-09, 06:46 AM   #4
 

elliptic integral


From the same book, I have the following.

Arcsin (which is given its integral form) maps the upper half plane 1:1 onto the shaded strip |x|<pi/2, y>0.

Now the sentence I don't get. By reflection in the punctured plane (punctured at +1 and -1), it produces a full tiling of the target plane by congruent, nonoverlapping images of the upper and lower half-planes.

So by this reflection we get many strips, that then completely cover the target plane.

But how does that work?

thank you
Apr14-09, 06:00 AM   #5
 
I have attached a file.

What goes on with 'By reflection in the punctured plane (punctured at +1 and -1), it produces a full tiling of the target plane by congruent, nonoverlapping images of the upper and lower half-planes'.

I do not understand this.
Attached Files
File Type: pdf mapping.pdf (149.6 KB, 12 views)
Apr17-09, 02:40 PM   #6
 
Hellllooooooooo!!!!!!!!!

By the way, it is from the book 'Elliptic Curves' by McKean and Moll, p. 71. They call this example simple and a warm up.

Anybody out there that can give a comment?
Apr19-09, 01:39 PM   #7
 
don't be shy
Apr21-09, 03:09 AM   #8
 
What is it what you people here don't like about my question?

Please talk to me.
Apr25-09, 05:45 PM   #9
 
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