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Is the Future Mapped Out ? |
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| Feb17-12, 08:53 PM | #18 |
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Is the Future Mapped Out ? |
| Feb17-12, 09:12 PM | #19 |
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And when paulselhi was talking about observer1's "future" I think he was referring to the future 3-D cross-section cut across the 4-D universe (not the directly experienced future that he actually experiences with light transmittal information). Just as when talking about an observer's "Now", a convention is typically adapted that assumes we've accounted for all of the distracting details such as speed of light time delays before actually "seeing", etc. Brian Greene makes all of that very clear in his book. So, we know what he is talking about when he talks about the "future" and the instantaneous 3-D cross-section (or slice of the loaf) that an observer "sees" in language that is understood in the context of Greene's discussion. And we know what Roger Penrose is talking about when he compares the events in the andromeda galaxy for Bill and for Ruth in our sketch--the inability of Bill or Ruth to influence events is irrelavent to the fundamental issues related to 4-dimensional existence. These issues are very profound for many physicists. We easily have a concept of the sun existing "right now", regardless of not receiving light for another few minutes. We have a concept of stars existing "out there" even though it may be years before their existence is confirmed with the arrival of the light. We don't ignore knowledge about the content of the distant reaches of the universe because it is not in our light cone. We don't ignore the theory of quarks because they are not directly observable. We pursue string theory even though it may never be possible to confirm the theory by experiment. The block universe is implied by special relativity. It is a logical model. That does not make it a fact of external objective reality. It's not a concept embraced by every physicist. Some physicists don't even embrace any kind of external objective physical reality. |
| Feb17-12, 09:41 PM | #20 |
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The no-physical-content presumption just because there is no possibility of intervention from outside the light cone is a red herring argument. |
| Feb17-12, 10:16 PM | #21 |
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removing any of the dimensions from the 4D continuum is an "abstract". With in this context of reducing dimensions of spacetime, the whole is more then the sum of it's parts. Outside the light cone in 3D is ">c interval" away from me, continuum. Here is some poetic physics bobc2, EM propagates towards the observer at c, the length measurement is the past tense of the time measurement*. Measuring the two dimensions, length & time simultaneously is a coordinating event, that is assuming "perpendicular" (?) measurements of time & length. Speed is the assumed "now" along some arbitrary spatial axis, one of an infinite number of possibilities (just ask pi) in isotropic space; motion is relative. Outada park, block universe is debunked, as this* can only work via continuum. |
| Feb18-12, 10:32 AM | #22 |
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Thinking of block universe some more, I agree the concept is "valid" from the perspective of EM.
If EM takes the shortest path, it's existence then is literally a slice in the three spacial dimensions. Said differently photon does not "experience" time, it never has more then one absolute set of spacial coordinates (that I can think of) but that of it's geodesic path; axis x. (there is no time to "effect" this cause [wave], hello uncertainty, lol sorry pf.) This is just the perspective of EM, For each existence of a wave, maybe the universe is as if it is like the block universe concept, so each wave's existence is only of length. An "I'm here, then I'm there" type existence. Then upon the wave's next event in the continuum passes the "baton" onto the next bit of whatever, cause effect it sounds like. A block universe continuum from EM's perspective. Going into the deep, it seems like being human is what adds to this confusion of time & length in relativity. It is where, very literally the two concepts/perspectives "blend", absolute length & time, arbitrary "now[s]" of EM visually. |
| Feb18-12, 01:24 PM | #23 |
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You're O.K., nitsuj. And you have carried this deeper than my limited intellect is capable of keeping up. Thanks for your ideas. |
| Feb18-12, 01:43 PM | #24 |
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| Feb18-12, 01:59 PM | #25 |
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But paulsehi claimed that this implies that the event "Andromeda leaders send the fleet to attack Earth" has "already occurred" for Ruth but not for Bill. I do disagree with that. The event is spacelike separated from both Ruth and Bill, so neither of them can causally influence it. Therefore, I would say the event has "already occurred" for *both* of them; neither of them can change it, so as far as they are concerned, it's fixed. However, there is also a different question, about what Bill or Ruth can *know* about what's happening in the Andromeda galaxy "right now". See below. I am objecting to the claim that we somehow can know for sure *what those events are*, what the objective reality actually is, when the events are still spacelike separated from us. We can't. We ignore this when we are setting up thought experiments because in thought experiments we simply *dictate*, by fiat, what the events are; we dictate, by fiat, that the Andromeda leaders sent the fleet at some particular event, which happens to be to the future of Bill's simultaneous space but to the past of Ruth's. But in the real world we can't dictate that; in the real world, neither Bill nor Ruth would know whether or not the Andromeda fleet was coming for two million years after the leaders decided to send it. So in the real world, any portion of a "block universe" model that is not in our past light cone is tentative. That doesn't mean those portions of spacetime aren't real; but it does mean that we don't know for sure what that portion of reality looks like until we see it. |
| Feb18-12, 02:41 PM | #26 |
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If I assign the geodesic path of a photon as axis x, the interval is complete from the photons calculation, the one without time, in that sense it is a slice in 3D dimensions, given the path is an arbitrary one of "infinite" possibilities in isotropic space. In other words if a clock went along with a photons journey, the time measurement would be 0 (i'd guess) so it's coordinates are only spatial, since time = 0. So because a photon follows a geodesic path, it is purely timelike from an observers perspective, It is purely spacelike from the photons perspective, despite that an observer can still measure time. In turn the max "speed" / interval can be calculated by observers. We have the unique opportunity to measure time and length separately but "at the same time", and assume they're absolute. I think the fact we can make these kinds of measurements is proof positive of a continuum. I'm not speaking with any authority here, just a layman so if corrections are in order please be simple (specifically no math, sorry)
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| Feb18-12, 02:54 PM | #27 |
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| Feb18-12, 03:12 PM | #28 |
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Blog Entries: 6
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| Feb18-12, 04:06 PM | #29 |
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1.b.)You asked me what I meant by slice in 3D, that is what I mean; the path of a photon. Im leaving it at that. You can't fool me, you know exactly what I mean with "time & length perpendicular to each other." especially after, oddly as it is, you describe what I meant in the very next sentence. 2.) again gimme a break peter, of course Im idealizing here, i know it can't physically happen & mathematically infinite is not zero. 3.) Im not talking about EM from the perspective of an observer, I'm talking about em from the perspective of em. Yes of course EM from the perspective of a observer is a null path. 4.) actually peter it is fundamentally different perspectives of the same thing. (see metre definition below) Pretty transparent you are not actually interested in what I meant by a slice in 3D. So to summarize your retorts are: I don't know what time & length measured perpendicular to each other means. c is invariant A null line has a non zero time component quoted out of context and made an irrelevant point Thanks for the feedback! So Peter if EM is not purely spatial from it's perspective, can you catch up to a beam of light? Probably not enough time in the interval for that. How else can a meter be defined by EM but by this kinda of reasoning. from wiki "The metre is the length of the path travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval of 1 ⁄ 299,792,458 of a second." that would be an interval free and clear of any time component, i.e. a length. (the length is assumed to be purely spacelike, defined by the path of a photon, & time to be purely timelike, also as defined by the path of a photon; normally called proper time & length) i.e. measuring time & length "perpendicular" to each other as seen when graphed. So there it is real world proof of the point I have had to make to you. Comprehension question for two points and a smiley face: Is there a difference in position of arbitrarily chosen axis between measuring time with EM and measuring length with em? If so what is it, Peter? Which direction does length contraction happen in? Is time dilation "all around"? |
| Feb18-12, 07:09 PM | #30 |
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The path of a photon, meaning its worldline, is a null line; in the case given in the Wiki definition, it goes between two events in spacetime with coordinates (in a suitably defined inertial frame) (0, 0) and (1/299,792,458, 1), where the (t, x) coordinates are given in (seconds, meters). The "length" you are talking about would be a *spacelike* line going from (0, 0) to (0, 1); the "proper time" you are talking about would be a timelike line going from (0, 0) to (1/299,792,458, 0). Neither of those lines is the worldline of the photon. The spacelike line could be thought of as the "spatial path" of the photon, since it is a projection into the (t = 0) spacelike slice of the photon's worldline; but that spacelike line is *not* the line you have to use if you want to figure out the photon's physics. You have to use its worldline. If the above was in fact how you were interpreting things, then good; but it wasn't clear from what you wrote before. It the above was not how you were interpreting things, then please clarify further. Take the Wiki scenario above again. Suppose there is a mirror at x coordinate 1 in the given inertial frame. I emit a photon at event (0, 0), and I want to verify that the mirror is exactly 1 meter away. I measure the round-trip light travel time to be 2/299,792,458 seconds, which verifies it. Conversely, suppose I want to verify that my clock is calibrated correctly, and I know for sure that the mirror is exactly 1 meter away. Again, I bounce a photon off the mirror and verify that my clock measures the round-trip travel time to be 2/299,792,458 seconds, which shows that it is properly calibrated. It seems to me that these experiments count as "measuring length with EM" and "measuring time with EM". But I did the same thing both times; the only difference was which parameter I took to be known and which one I took myself to be measuring. So I don't see how there's any difference in "position of the axis" between the two measurements. But I'm not sure if that's the question you were asking. |
| Feb19-12, 08:41 AM | #31 |
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a reply for shits & giggles,
being overly subtle, Im saying EM away from you is length; EM towards you is time. The length measurement is the past tense of the time measurement. Less subtle, and more "scientific" Length & time are defined by the path of a photon perpendicular to....the path of a photon. aka one light second per second. This is also the presentation of a spacetime diagram, specifically when natural units are used. i.e. time axis perpendicular to length axis. Are we done playing elusive debater? 1.) i don't care for the "rules" of using a FoR for a photon. 'cause I posit that a photon cannot measure time. Perhaps better said as the distance it travels is purely spacelike. Your point here seems to get into the technicalities of applying theory. I have no formal education here so...but see the last comment of this post, I think it's relates to this. 2.) ... 3.) I don't know of equation for measure of time and length from the perspective of a photon. perhaps this imagery would help, two photons; one is 299,xxx metres behind the other. what is the interval between the two? Is it purely spacelike no matter the relative velocity of whoever measures it? Why can there not be a time component in that interval? (this is just by my possibly wrong reasoning, I don't know the simple math of calculating intervals, but assume that since nothing goes faster then c, the separation between the two is of purely length, no cause from the trailing photon can effect the leading photon no matter how much time is given) 4.) lol, this one is funny, Peter the fundamentally different things are null & spatial, the "same thing" is the path of a photon, hence "fundamentally different perspectives of the same thing." (I know a photon doesn't have an FoR, let's play pretend like they did when defining the metre & second) next.) I can't help you understand it any further then; if you can't catch up to a beam of light the interval must be purely spatial. for some reason, in the next part you reason exactly what I've been saying. Yay we agree! Answer.) it's yes & it would be perpendicular to each other, where the distance of the path of a photon are equal parts. i.e. one meter up for a time measure, 1/299,xxxx of a second for a length measure, and there is a meter and a second defined. they are of the same distance (interval) but of different units, referred to as natural units. As defined, separated merely by orientation relative to what an observer calculates as a null path, where time & length are zero. yay invariance! This from wiki seems to address that technical stuff from point one that I am unable to address; "Massless particles like the photon follow null geodesics. Spacelike geodesics exist. They do not correspond to the path of any physical particle, but in a space that has space-sections orthogonal to a timelike Killing vector a spacelike geodesic (with its affine parameter) within such a space section represents the graph of a tightly stretched, massless filament" Yay! I learned a new word, I should have be saying "orthogonal" instead of "perpendicular". Maybe you can help me understand something better, this back and forth regarding the FoR of a photon, worldlines ect, does addressing those "issues" come from the "killing field" stuff? I can't understand the wiki entry well enough to know. In this context I amount "killing field" to the myth buster line "I reject your reality [photons measure of time/length] and substitute my own [observers measure of time / length]". Is that what the "killing field" does? |
| Feb19-12, 01:03 PM | #32 |
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I'm sorry if that comes off as snarky, but please understand that the theory has rules, and standard terms, and standard ways of talking about things, for a reason: so that the theory can make accurate predictions, and so that its concepts can be talked about with clarity and precision. You appear to be trying to express your thoughts in your own terms, using your own version of the theory, and it's not working well; but clearly you have *some* thought behind them. For example, you say "a photon cannot measure time...the distance it travels is purely spacelike". A photon's worldline is not spacelike; it's null; and it's the fact that it's null that accounts for why the "time measured by a photon" is zero (not the best way to put it, IMO, but a lot of people do use that phrase to refer to the null worldline). The "distance it travels" can be interpreted as a spacelike line, as I said in previous posts, but that spacelike line tells you nothing useful about the physics; in particular, it doesn't tell you that the photon's actual worldline is null, so it doesn't tell you anything about whether or not the photon can "measure time" in the sense you're using the term. I would strongly recommend that you try to learn more about the standard theory and the standard terms. Even if you're going to end up deciding that you don't entirely accept the standard theory and the standard terms, you will find it a lot easier to communicate what you disagree with if you know the standard theory and the standard terms. A measurer that was moving relative to the first one would then see a nonzero time component to that specific interval (that is, the interval between the two specific events implied by your description--events on each photon's worldline that are "at the same time" according to the first measurer); but he would also see a *different* space component. However, a measurer moving relative to the first one would find it more natural to measure a *different* interval, one between events on the two photons' worldlines that were "at the same time" according to *him*, not the first measurer. By the relativity of simultaneity, these will be a *different* pair of events; to the second measurer, *this* interval, between that pair of events, will have a zero time component (and a space component different from 299,xxx meters); but *this* interval will have a nonzero time component (and a space component that is still different from 299,xxx meters) to the *first* measurer. In summary: an "interval" is a Lorentz interval between a specific pair of events; for any timelike or spacelike interval there will be one particular FoR (one particular measurer) in which only one component (time for timelike intervals or space for spacelike intervals) is nonzero. (For timelike intervals this is called the "rest frame"; for spacelike intervals there is no simple term in common use, but "simultaneous frame" would seem to me to be a good term for it). For null intervals, the time and space components in any FoR must be equal, but their actual magnitude will vary from frame to frame. |
| Feb19-12, 03:30 PM | #33 |
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nitsuj, you seem to be expressing the same idea that Brian Greene expressed ("The Fabric Of The Cosmos" pg. 49): "Moreover, the maximum speed through space is reached when all light-speed motion through time is fully diverted into light-speed motion through space--one way of understanding why it is impossible to go through space at greater than light speed. Light, which always travels at light speed through space, is special in that it always achieves such total diversion. And just as driving due east leaves no motion for traveling north, moving at light speed through space leaves no motion for traveling through time! Time stops when traveling at the speed of light through space. A watch worn by a particle of light would not tick at all..." |
| Feb19-12, 09:22 PM | #34 |
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So worldlines that are null (that "move at c") are separated by a discontinuity from worldlines that are timelike (that "move at less than c", so there is a frame in which they are at rest). Greene's way of putting it obscures this fundamental discontinuity. |
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