
#1
Mar812, 12:07 PM

P: 783

I'm trying to understand something in Fermat's Theorem. I can't really phrase it in words, but I will write what my textbook says.
Apparently if [tex] \lim_{x→c}\frac{f(x)f(c)}{xc} > 0 [/tex] then there exists an open interval (a,b) containing c such that [tex] \frac{f(x)f(c)}{xc} > 0 [/tex] for all c in that interval. How does this follow from the definition of the derivative? I appreciate all help. Thanks! 


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