Proving a property of an integral

Mike s

I have already solved it, but I need confirmation:


Are there other ways of proving this?

Thanks in advance!

Curious3141

Your proof is fine (and it's the way I would've done it), except that you should explicitly define your [itex]F(a)[/itex]. You implicitly defined it as an indefinite integral, which means [itex]F(0) = c[/itex], but I would prefer to define [itex]F(a) = \int_0^a f(x) dx[/itex], and include one more intermediary step clarifying that [itex]\int_a^{2a} f(t) dt = \int_0^{2a} f(t) dt - \int_0^a f(t) dt = F(2a) - F(a)[/itex]. This way, I don't have to bother with the [itex]F(0)[/itex] term at all.

Mike s

Thanks a lot!