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Inverse function fourier

by john1989
Tags: fourier, function, inverse
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john1989
#1
Nov9-12, 10:42 AM
P: 4
Hi

Does anyone know if there is a relation between the fourier transform of a function and the fourier transform of the inverse function

in summary
FT[f(x)] ?= FT[f-1(x)]

Thanks!
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Vargo
#2
Nov12-12, 04:11 PM
P: 350
Logically they must be related because a 1-1 function uniquely determines its own inverse. Therefore, the Fourier transforms are at least related through this indirect relationship. However, I don't think there is any reasonable formula to relate the two. The Fourier transform does not interact with composition of functions in a simple way.


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