
#1
Nov912, 10:42 AM

P: 4

Hi
Does anyone know if there is a relation between the fourier transform of a function and the fourier transform of the inverse function in summary FT[f(x)] ?= FT[f^{1}(x)] Thanks! 



#2
Nov1212, 04:11 PM

P: 350

Logically they must be related because a 11 function uniquely determines its own inverse. Therefore, the Fourier transforms are at least related through this indirect relationship. However, I don't think there is any reasonable formula to relate the two. The Fourier transform does not interact with composition of functions in a simple way.



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