Question about Inertia

by Macrobe
Tags: inertia
Macrobe is offline
Jan17-13, 11:31 PM
P: 12
I have a question regarding Inertia. Exactly how much force, in Newtons, is required to overcome the inertia of exactly one kilogram of mass? It seems to me there must be some sort of quantity for it.
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LastOneStanding is offline
Jan18-13, 12:18 AM
P: 718
It depends on how fast you want to accelerate the object. The equation is ##\vec{F_{Net}} = m\vec{a}##, or in words, (net force acting on the object) = (mass of the object) x (acceleration of the object). This is Newton's second law. It takes, for example, 1 Newton of force to accelerate a 1kg object at 1m/s2.
Macrobe is offline
Jan18-13, 12:23 AM
P: 12
Ah. Okay...not exactly what I was looking for, but what I was looking for was probably wrong ;) thanks.

LastOneStanding is offline
Jan18-13, 12:26 AM
P: 718

Question about Inertia

Yes, if you were looking for some measure of a force required to overcome inertia that is independent of acceleration, then there's no such thing.
BruceW is offline
Jan19-13, 06:48 AM
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P: 3,339
yeah, it is pretty counter-intuitive that f=ma, because in our everyday lives, most of the time there are frictional forces.
Tik is offline
Jan20-13, 01:01 AM
P: 11
I think Macrobe meant to ask how much force would be required to get a body off its stationary position. On a flat surface, it is equal to the co-efficient of static friction x Weight of the body (weight, not mass). If the body is on, say, a road, the force required to get the body would be around 0.7 times the weight of the body.

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