Clear Up My Misconception: Magnet & Magnetic Force Work w/o Energy?

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Gelsamel Epsilon
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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the nature of magnetic forces and their relationship to work and energy. Participants explore whether magnets can do work without expending energy and compare magnetic potential energy to gravitational potential energy, delving into the definitions and properties of these concepts.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether magnets can do work without expending energy, suggesting a potential misconception.
  • Another participant asserts that magnetic potential energy operates similarly to gravitational potential energy.
  • A different participant challenges this by stating that magnetic fields do not do work because they only change the direction of velocity, not its magnitude.
  • There is a discussion about whether magnetic potential is a scalar or a vector, with conflicting views presented by participants.
  • One participant argues that the potential energy in a static magnetic field can be described similarly to gravitational potential energy, citing the relationship between force and distance.
  • Another participant insists that potential must be a scalar, referencing the definition of force derived from potential energy.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the nature of magnetic potential energy and whether it can be considered analogous to gravitational potential energy. There is no consensus on whether magnetic potential is a scalar or vector, indicating ongoing debate.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference various definitions and relationships in physics, but there are unresolved questions about the nature of magnetic forces and potential energy, as well as the implications of these definitions.

Gelsamel Epsilon
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Sorry guys but I need someone to clear up what I consider something I may have a misconception about.

In my understanding a magnet or magnetic forces, can do work yet expend no energy. Is this correct? And if so is there a law I probably havn't learned yet? Is it one of those things no one can explain? Or am I wrong and there is some energy conversion, what ever it may be?

Sorta sounds like a stupid, and possibly simple question to me at the moment. But the answer is avoiding me D:~Gelsamel

Edit: Because it seems to me that if gravity does work through potential energy conversions then either magnets are mysterious and just do things or there is some sort of magnetic potential energy.
 
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Magnetic potential energy works pretty much the same way as gravitational.
 
Ah I see, so it is as simple as that. Thanks for clearing that up.
 
russ_watters said:
Magnetic potential energy works pretty much the same way as gravitational.

That isn't quite right. For starters, magnetic potential is a vector, not scalar. Assuming we're staying out of GR, GMm/r^2 is scalar. But the main thing is that magnetic fields do no work because they only change velocity perpendicular to direction of motion: F = q v x B. F perpendicular to v always. The speed of the accelerated particle remains unchanged, only the direction is altered.
 
Ah I see how that works, that's interesting.
 
i thought magnetic potential is a scalar??
 
According to Wik, it can either, but I'd still say that the potential energy of an object works pretty much the same in a static magnetic field as in a gravitational. I think Bo and I are talking about two different things: I'm just talking about when you pull a metalic object directly away from a magnet, you get the same d^2 relationship between distance and force and therefore the same potential energy equation. For that matter, any similar system (spring-mass, air shock) can be described via potential energy:
If a force acting on an object is a function of position only, it is said to be a conservative force, and it can be represented by a potential energy function which for a one-dimensional case satisfies the derivative condition.
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/pegrav.html
 
I´m pretty sure that the potential is always a scalar. By definition, the Force resulting from a potential U is F = grad U, which would make no sense if U was a vector field.
 
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