Plane Wave Propogation (help understanding steps in book)

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The discussion focuses on the derivation of the equation for plane wave propagation, specifically the magnetic field vector \(\vec H\) at time \(t = 3 \, \text{ms}\). The solution provided is \(\vec H = \hat z 4 \times 10^{-6} \cos \left(10^7 \pi t - k_0 y +\frac{\pi}{4} \right)\), with \(k_0\) calculated as \(0.105 \, \text{rad/m}\) and wavelength \(\lambda = 60 \, \text{m}\). The critical step involves recognizing that the term \(10^7 \pi (3 \times 10^{-3})\) is a multiple of \(\pi\), allowing it to be dropped without affecting the cosine function's zero crossings. The final expression for \(y\) is derived as \(y = \pm 30n - 7.5 \, \text{m}\), where \(n\) is an integer.

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Plane Wave Propagation (help understanding steps in book)

Basically this problem requires that [itex]\vec H[/itex] vanishes at [itex]t = 3ms[/itex]. I don't understand how they did the last step, here is the solution:

[tex]\vec H = \hat z 4 \times 10^{-6} \cos \left(10^7 \pi t - k_0 y +\frac{\pi}{4} \right)[/tex]

[tex]k_0 = \omega \sqrt{\mu_0 \epsilon_0} = \frac{10^7 \pi}{3 \times 10^8} = 0.105 \,\,\,\, (rad/m)[/tex]
[tex]\lambda = \frac{2\pi}{k_0} = 60 \,\,\,\, (m)[/tex]

At [itex]t = 3 \times 10^{-3} \,\,\,\, (s)[/itex] we require the argument of cosine in [itex]\vec H[/itex]:

[tex]10^7 \pi (3 \times 10^{-3}) - \frac{\pi}{30}y +\frac{\pi}{4} = \pm n \pi + \frac{\pi}{2}, \,\,\,\,n=0,1,2,\ldots[/tex]

[tex]y = \pm 30n - 7.5 \,\,\,\, (m)[/tex]

Now how the hell do they get the last line? The... [itex]y = \pm 30n - 7.5 \,\,\,\, (m)[/itex] (Lets call this (1)) line.
They drop [itex]10^7 \pi (3 \times 10^{-3})[/itex] why?

My problem is that if we plug in (1) into,
[tex]\vec H = \hat z 4 \times 10^{-6} \cos \left(10^7 \pi t - k_0 y +\frac{\pi}{4} \right)[/tex]

and set t = 0.003, then if we feed the function values of n then the cosine doesn't drop to 0.

Thanks in advance!
 
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The term they dropped is a multiple of pi (and in fact a multiple of 2pi). Adding a multiple of pi to an angle at which the cosine is zero is still going to give you a cosine of zero.
 
OlderDan said:
The term they dropped is a multiple of pi (and in fact a multiple of 2pi). Adding a multiple of pi to an angle at which the cosine is zero is still going to give you a cosine of zero.

Ahh... tricky tricky. (I mean, yeah, it's not too tricky but still, I guess I will add this to my list of things to look for subconsciously while evaluating expressions)
 

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