How Do You Prove the Integral of Cosine Functions Using Exponential Forms?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the integral of cosine functions expressed in exponential forms. Participants explore the mathematical approach to evaluate the integral of the product of cosine functions over a specified interval, considering different cases based on the values of the parameters involved.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests using the exponential form of cosine functions, specifically e^(iwt) and e^(-iwt), to express the integral and solve it based on the values of n and m.
  • Another participant proposes splitting the proof into two cases: one for when n is not equal to m, and another for when n equals m, indicating that the integral should yield different results in these scenarios.
  • A request for an example is made, with a participant expressing confusion about whether to choose specific values for n and m.
  • It is emphasized that the proof should be conducted in general terms, keeping n and m as variables rather than substituting specific values, to demonstrate the result universally.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the necessity of treating n and m as variables for a general proof, but there is some confusion regarding the application of specific values and the overall approach to the integral.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty about the exponential form of cosine functions and the implications of choosing specific values for n and m versus keeping them as general constants. There is a lack of clarity on the integration steps required to reach the proposed results.

jlmac2001
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The question asks to prove the following by writing each sine and cosine function as a sum of exponentials of arguments inwt or imwt:

integral from -pi/w to pi/w (cos (nwt)cos(mwt) dt) = {0 for n not equal to m, pi/w for n=m not equal to 0 , 2pi/w for n=m=0

Would I write the cosine funtion in the exponential form e^x+e^-x/2 and then solve by using different valuse for n and w for the one the is equal to 0 when n is not equal to m? I'm confused.
 
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Split the job in two cases
1. You are to show that the integral is zero whenever n is not m.
2. You are to show that the integral is the value indicated whenever n=m
If you are unfamiliar with the exponential form, you might use:
cos(nx)cos(mx)=1/2(cos((n-m)x)+cos((n+m)x))
 
example

I still don't get it. Can someone show me an example? Do i have to chose two different numbers for n and m?
 
You must do it for general n and m. Specifying them for a couple of values does not prove the result for all n and m. Just leave the n and m in there as letters (constants) and do the integration.
 

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