How Does Quantum Mechanics Describe Particle Velocity?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of quantum mechanics to describe particle velocity, specifically in the context of gauge invariance in electrodynamics. Participants are exploring the relationship between classical and quantum velocities, as well as the implications of various terms in the equations presented.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to connect classical velocity with quantum mechanical expressions, questioning the meaning of symbols such as p, q, and A. There is discussion about the use of different notations for velocity and the implications of gauge invariance.

Discussion Status

Some participants are providing guidance on starting points for the problem, such as using the commutator to derive relationships. Others are clarifying their understanding of the terms involved and confirming their interpretations before proceeding with calculations.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the challenge posed by new material and the need for clarity on standard notation. The discussion is framed within the context of a class focused on electrodynamics, which may influence the assumptions and definitions being used.

curious george
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I was recently given a problem that asked me to show that the classical velocity of a particle is given by:

[tex]v = \frac{d \langle x\rangle}{dt} = \frac{1}{m} \langle({\bf p}-q{\bf A})\rangle[/tex]

The expectation value of the time derivative of x is given by:

[tex]\langle v\rangle = \int{\Psi ^{*} (x \frac{d}{dt}) \Psi[/tex]

So then I just work this out, and what do I do after that? How do I get from here to the form the problem is asking for?
 
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I assume p and q are the "generalized coordinates" (p is "x-position" and q is momentum) but what is A?

Also you are using "v" to mean two different things. In the first equation, v is the "classical" velocity while in the second it is the velocity "operator".
In other words, the v in the first equation IS the <v> of the second.
 
HallsofIvy said:
I assume p and q are the "generalized coordinates" (p is "x-position" and q is momentum) but what is A?

Also you are using "v" to mean two different things. In the first equation, v is the "classical" velocity while in the second it is the velocity "operator".
In other words, the v in the first equation IS the <v> of the second.

I'm sorry, this material is new to me and I'm not sure what is "standard" notation and what isn't. The question was asked in the context of gauge invariance in electrodynamics(that's what we're discussing in my class right now), so I believe the whole expression "p-qA" is the substitution:

[tex]\bf{p} = \frac{\hbar}{i} \bigtriangledown \to \bf{p} - q\bf{A}[/tex]

so p is momentum, q is charge, and A is the vector potential. We also have the substitution:

[tex]i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial t} \rightarrow i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial t} - q\phi[/tex]

Where q is again the charge and phi is the scaler potential.

So the Schrödinger equation should look like:

[tex]i\hbar\frac{\partial\Psi}{\partial t}= \left[\frac{1}{2m} \left(\frac{\hbar}{i}\bigtriangledown + qA\right)^2+q\phi\right]\Psi[/tex]
 
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Start with the commutator [tex][H,x][/tex], from there you should be able to work out the solution.

dt
 
Dr Transport said:
Start with the commutator [tex][H,x][/tex], from there you should be able to work out the solution.

dt


So the hamiltonian in this case is
[tex]\left[\frac{1}{2m} \left(\frac{\hbar}{i}\bigtriangledown + qA\right)^2+q\phi\right][/tex]
right?

So if I take the commutator of that with x:
[tex]\left[\left[\frac{1}{2m} \left(\frac{\hbar}{i}\bigtriangledown + qA\right)^2+q\phi\right],x\right][/tex]

I should be able to figure out the time derivative of <x> by

[tex]\frac{d\langle x \rangle}{dt}=\frac{i}{\hbar}\left\langle\left[\left[\frac{1}{2m} \left(\frac{\hbar}{i}\bigtriangledown + qA\right)^2+q\phi\right],x\right]\right\rangle+\frac{\partial \langle x \rangle}{\partial t}[/tex]

Right? I just want to make sure I've got the idea right before I try to go and do the math. Thanks for the help guys.
 

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