How does the momentum operator prove its role as the generator of translation?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the momentum operator in quantum mechanics, specifically its role in determining the momentum of a particle as described by Schrödinger's wave equation and its function as the generator of translations.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are exploring the nature of proof regarding the momentum operator and its properties. Questions include the specifics of what proof is being sought and the relationship between the momentum operator and translation symmetry.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants seeking clarification on the original poster's request for proof. Some have offered insights into the mathematical relationships involved, while others emphasize the need for a clear problem statement to facilitate assistance.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be confusion regarding the definition of proof in this context, as well as the assumptions underlying the momentum operator's role in quantum mechanics. Participants are questioning the validity of certain approaches and the necessity of specific commutation relations.

csutton1
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Does anyone have a momentum operator proof? The book I'm using is skipping a lot of steps .
 
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Could you be more specific? Proof of what?
 
sorry i re-read my post and realized it was really vague. The momentum operator used to determine the momentum of a particle described by schrodingers wave equation.
 
csutton1 said:
sorry i re-read my post and realized it was really vague. The momentum operator used to determine the momentum of a particle described by schrodingers wave equation.

Yes, what about it? I don't understand what proof you have in mind. Maybe, if you post the exact problem statement, and where you are stuck, it'll be easier to help.
 
I am also stunned, are you saying that you want a proof that

[tex]-i\hbar \nabla[/tex]

gives the momentum of a state?

Be specific, and write down for us where you get stucked.
 
There is no *proof*, but there is a "classical" way to calculate it. But still it`s not a *proof*.
Assume that this relation for the mean values is valid:
<P>=m*d<x>/dt.
Then substitute <x>=(Ψ,xΨ), do the math and you`ll get the well known result:
<P>=(Ψ,pΨ), where p is the momentum`s operator.
 
No JK423, that is not what you do. You want to show that the p operator is the generator of translations and that it fulfills certain commutation relations.
 
malawi_glenn said:
No JK423, that is not what you do. You want to show that the p operator is the generator of translations and that it fulfills certain commutation relations.

I mentioned a way to calculate momentum`s operator in {x} representation from a known classical equation. What`s wrong about that?
What do you mean by
"You want to show that the p operator is the generator of translations and that it fulfills certain commutation relations" ?
You can show these these things without knowing what operator p equals to?
 
Well what you wrote is ok :-)
but is not a proof, as you said.



but I know what p equals, so I can proove that it is the generator of translation and fulfills certain commutator relations. I did not say that i was about to derive the momentum operator, which is done by doing the steps backwards. I.e I demand translations symmetry and that it fulfills certain commutator relations.

It is quite simple.
 

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