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Mobility of holes and electrons |
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| May15-08, 03:10 AM | #1 |
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Mobility of holes and electrons
hi,
holes are the absence of electrons in the lattice, right? then how come we say holes have a +ve charge? shouldnt it be zero? also, why is the mobility of electrons more than holes? thanks |
| May15-08, 03:26 AM | #2 |
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Recognitions:
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This is what I wrote for another thread:
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| May15-08, 04:42 AM | #3 |
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i should ve searched for that before posting a new thread. it makes sense, yes..
what would the effective mass of a hole be?? |
| May15-08, 10:55 AM | #4 |
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Mobility of holes and electrons
Where would you usually find a hole? And where would you usually find an electron?
Where == which band? Yes, the effective masses of holes and electrons are different. The mobility is a function of the effective mass, which is a theoretical tool brought in to simplify the description of a charged particle in a crystal. Classically, the concept of an effective mass is analogous to that of a 'psuedo force' in Newtonian mechanics. In the simplified, Drude model, the mobility is inversely proportional to the effective mass, for a fixed mean free time. |
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