
#1
May1508, 03:10 AM

P: 74

hi,
holes are the absence of electrons in the lattice, right? then how come we say holes have a +ve charge? shouldnt it be zero? also, why is the mobility of electrons more than holes? thanks 



#2
May1508, 03:26 AM

HW Helper
P: 2,618

This is what I wrote for another thread:




#3
May1508, 04:42 AM

P: 74

i should ve searched for that before posting a new thread. it makes sense, yes..
what would the effective mass of a hole be?? 



#4
May1508, 10:55 AM

P: 1,772

Mobility of holes and electrons
Where would you usually find a hole? And where would you usually find an electron?
Where == which band? Yes, the effective masses of holes and electrons are different. The mobility is a function of the effective mass, which is a theoretical tool brought in to simplify the description of a charged particle in a crystal. Classically, the concept of an effective mass is analogous to that of a 'psuedo force' in Newtonian mechanics. In the simplified, Drude model, the mobility is inversely proportional to the effective mass, for a fixed mean free time. 


Register to reply 
Related Discussions  
mobility of electrons  Atomic, Solid State, Comp. Physics  5  
Need Help With Electron Mobility Problem  General Physics  2  
Need Help With Electron Mobility Problem  General Physics  0  
Why aren't electrons considered "black holes"?  Special & General Relativity  18  
mobility shift assays  Biology  2 