How Do You Calculate Initial Velocity in a Ballistic Pendulum Problem?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the initial velocity of a steel marble in a ballistic pendulum setup, where the marble is launched into a pendulum that swings to a maximum height. The problem involves concepts from mechanics, particularly energy conservation and inelastic collisions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use energy conservation to relate the marble's initial velocity to the height reached by the pendulum. They express confusion regarding the mass of the pendulum and its role in the inelastic collision formula.
  • Some participants question the assumption of the pendulum's mass and suggest considering it negligible compared to the marble's mass.
  • There is a discussion about the correct application of the inelastic collision formula and the need for the mass of the pendulum to solve for the initial velocity.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different assumptions and interpretations of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the need for the mass of the pendulum to proceed with the calculations, but no consensus has been reached on how to resolve the issue.

Contextual Notes

The original poster has indicated uncertainty about the mass of the pendulum and its impact on the calculations, which remains a point of contention in the discussion.

ussjt
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A steel marble is shot out of a launcher (straight) in a "catcher" on a ballistic pendulum. The pendulum then swings up into its max height ans stops. At that point...the height for the gPE is .163 m. The mass of the marble is .0558g. I need to find the inital velocity of the marble. I solve (.5)(m)(v^2)=mgh to find the starting velocity for that, which is the final velocity after the perfctly inelasic collusion. But what happens is that I use the perfctly inelasic collusion formula, m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 +m2)v' , but I always end up with two variable because I don't know m2. This is where I get stuck. I know the velocity should be some where around 3.5, but I'm not getting close. Please help me..I attached a diagram, I hope it works.
 
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Sorry for the double post...but could someone one help me ASAP. Thanks.
 
Can't find the diagram, but:
What do you get if you assume the mass of the pendulum to be much less (negligible) to the mass of the steel ball?
 
ussjt said:
I solve (.5)(m)(v^2)=mgh to find the starting velocity for that, which is the final velocity after the perfctly inelasic collusion.
Right, assuming you really mean: (.5)(m1 + m2)(v'^2)=mgh.
But what happens is that I use the perfctly inelasic collusion formula, m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 +m2)v' , but I always end up with two variable because I don't know m2. This is where I get stuck.
Since the speed of the "catcher" is zero before the collision, you mean:
m1v1 = (m1 +m2)v', where v1 is the speed of the marble.

There's no way around it: You need the mass of the "catcher" if you wish to find v1.
 

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