Originally Posted by zetafunction
how can one prove that 
|
That is true, with probability one,
if f(n) are independent. In fact, the law of the iterated logarithm says that with probability one it is of order

.
Originally Posted by zetafunction
then is RH true by this argument? ,
|
as CRGreathouse mentions, this does not follow because the Mertens function is deterministic and not random. It's expected to share many properties of a random sequence, but that hasn't been proven.