Originally Posted by Dragonfall
Do you mean that infinitely many primes separated by the same even number? Or do you mean infinitely many primes separated by a multiple of the same even number? The latter is true.
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I know Elliott-Halberstam implies that (via Goldston-Pintz-Yıldırım), but is it known unconditionally? As far as I know,

for all n sufficiently large has not been disproven.
Oh wait, I just reread what you wrote. The latter is trivially true, since all prime gaps but the first are divisible by 2.