May3-10, 05:28 PM
Hello all quantum nerds! :D
I have a question regarding the "classical" limit of quantum fields, and in particular gauge fields.
When we for instance do a surface integration in QFT, we let phi -> 0 as V->oo
why? this is said in textbooks to correspond to the "classical limit",
and for gauge fields, one lets the field strength tensor F_mu,nu -> 0 which makes the gauge potential go to zero or a gauge transformation of 0.
So why these boundaries in the "classical" limit (V->oo)
|Register to reply|
|Classical limit of Quantum Optics||Quantum Physics||2|
|Difference between a classical and quantum field theory?||Quantum Physics||0|
|"quantum to classical transition" or "classical limit"?||Quantum Physics||0|