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Reverse Induction? 
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#1
Dec610, 12:54 PM

PF Gold
P: 1,945

1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Say I had a problem like this: Prove that the nth derivative of x*e^(x) is (x+n)*e^(x) for all integer n. Can I use reverse induction to prove for negative n? For example... Say I proved it for my base case, n=0. In this case, the proof is trivial. Then I prove that if the nth derivative is (x+n)e^(x), then the (n+1)th derivative is (x+n+1)e^(x). (I didn't provide the proof because there's a similar homework problem here, and the proof is easy anyway. Can I then use reverse induction to prove that if the nth derivative is (x+n)e^(x), then the (n1)th derivative is (x+n1)e^(x), thus extending this case to negative derivatives (i.e., integrals)? Am I even making sense? 


#2
Dec610, 05:02 PM

Mentor
P: 18,099

Hmm, I'm not sure if this is correct. You do have to use reverse induction though. But isn't it easier to show "if it holds for n, then it holds for n1". Or is this what you meant?



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