Deriving Fourier Series for a Regular Sawtooth Wave

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around deriving the Fourier series for a regular sawtooth wave, specifically addressing the mathematical formulation and integration process involved in obtaining the series representation.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a piecewise function for a sawtooth wave and expresses difficulty in deriving its Fourier series.
  • Another participant corrects a potential typo in the Fourier series representation, suggesting it should be f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}, and notes that the function is odd, leading to zero cosine coefficients.
  • There is a question about whether the integration for the sine coefficients can be split into two parts over the intervals from to 0 and from 0 to π.
  • A participant queries the necessity of determining an a_0 term and expresses uncertainty about when to include a_n terms.
  • Another participant asserts that the zeroth coefficient of the sine function is always zero, reinforcing that sin(nx) equals zero when n=0.
  • There is a confirmation that the integrals for the sine coefficients can be considered equal due to the odd nature of the functions involved.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the correction of the Fourier series representation and the properties of the sine function, but there remains uncertainty regarding the integration process and the inclusion of a_0 terms.

Contextual Notes

Participants express varying levels of confidence in the integration steps and the conditions under which certain coefficients should be included, indicating a need for clarity on these mathematical conventions.

cj
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I can derive the Fourier series for a regular
sawtooth wave.

A different kind of sawtooth is represented by:

[tex]f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}-\frac{1}{2}(\pi +x),&\mbox{ if }<br /> =-\pi \leq x < 0\\+\frac{1}{2}(\pi -x),& \mbox{ if } 0 < x \leq \pi\end{array}\right.[/tex]

For the life of me I can't figure out how
to derive the series for this, which is:

[tex]f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} sin (nx/n)[/tex]
 
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Probably a typo, but:
[tex]f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}[/tex]

It's obtained the usual way. The function is odd, so all the cosine coefficients are zero.
Now just get:

[tex]a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx[/tex]

where [itex]a_n[/itex] is the coefficient of sin(nx)
 
Yes, you're right -- there was a typo.

Does the integration breaks down
into

[tex]a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx + \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{0}f(x)\sin(nx)dx \text { ??}[/tex]

Also, does an [itex]a_0[/itex] term need to be
determined? I'm not sure when,
or when not, to include an [itex]a_n[/itex].

Thanks a lot.

Galileo said:
Probably a typo, but:
[tex]f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}[/tex]

It's obtained the usual way. The function is odd, so all the cosine coefficients are zero.
Now just get:

[tex]a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx[/tex]

where [itex]a_n[/itex] is the coefficient of sin(nx)
 
cj said:
Also, does an [itex]a_0[/itex] term need to be
determined? I'm not sure when,
or when not, to include an [itex]a_n[/itex].
No. There's an easy way to remember/see it. If n=0, then sin(nx)=0.
So the zeroth coeff. of the sine is always zero.
For the cosine: cos(nx)=1 if n=0.

cj said:
[tex]a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx + \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{0}f(x)\sin(nx)dx \text { ??}[/tex]
That's correct, so that's all there's to it.
Both integrals are equal though, since f(x) and sin(nx) are odd, f(x)sin(nx) is even.
 

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