How is the Energy Limit of a Uranium Atom Determined?

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SUMMARY

The energy limit of a uranium atom is determined by its mass, with the relationship defined by Einstein's equation E=mc². When uranium undergoes fission, the energy released is calculated by taking the mass difference between the original uranium atom and the resulting atoms. This process confirms that a finite amount of uranium corresponds to a finite amount of energy, adhering to the law of conservation of energy. The discussion also touches on the implications of theoretical concepts like black holes and dark matter on this law.

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Could anyone with some expertise answer these questions for me?

When an atom is split, does a finite amount of uranium produce a finite amount of energy?

What determines how much energy a uranium atom might contain?
 
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Of course a finite amount of Uranium corresponds to a finite amount of energy, what else could it be?

To find the amount of energy released in fission, take the difference in masses of the resulting atoms and the original atom of U, apply E= mc2.

As for how much "energy" a Uranium atom might contain, simply apply E= mc2 to the mass of a single atom of U. Understand that this is not the amount of energy released in a fission reaction (see above).
 
Integral said:
Of course a finite amount of Uranium corresponds to a finite amount of energy, what else could it be?

Nothing else that I can think of, as far as I know the law of conservation of energy has never been broken. I wish the answer to something farther ahead, that’s where my questions end.:smile:

To find the amount of energy released in fission, take the difference in masses of the resulting atoms and the original atom of U, apply E= mc2.

As for how much "energy" a Uranium atom might contain, simply apply E= mc2 to the mass of a single atom of U. Understand that this is not the amount of energy released in a fission reaction (see above).

Then the energy released is always directly proportional to the mass of its atom. This equation to be correct then, assumes that there is a equality on both sides of the equation.

I have been listening to the Richard Feynman lectures trying to understand some of these things.

Is it correct to assume then that, there is always the same amount of E in the universe? Has there been any changes in knowledge, on the law of conservation of energy, with what we know now about theoretical black holes or dark matter?
 

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