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Analitic function |
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| Dec2-11, 07:38 AM | #1 |
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Analitic function
[tex]\oint dz\frac{e^{ikz}}{z}[/tex]
How we know for [tex]k>0[/tex] is function analytic in upper or in lower half plane? |
| Dec2-11, 11:20 AM | #2 |
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I am assuming you want to calculate:
[tex]\int_{\gamma}\frac{exp(ikz)}{z} \, \mathrm{d}z[/tex] where [itex]\gamma[/itex] is some closed loop such that [itex]0 \in \mathrm{Int}(\gamma)[/itex]. If this is the case, you can the integral using the Residue Theorem. That is, write [itex]exp(ikz)[/itex] as a power series. Divide each term of the power series by [itex]z[/itex] to obtain a meromorphic function. You can then perform the integration and the only term that contributes to the value of the integral is the residue. |
| Dec2-11, 11:36 AM | #3 |
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I asked what I want to know. I don't understand why if I have
[tex]\oint \frac{e^{ikz}}{z}[/tex], [tex]k>0[/tex] function is analytic in upper half plane if I [tex]k<0[/tex] function is analytic in lower half plane? Why? |
| Dec2-11, 11:46 AM | #4 |
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Analitic function
The contour integral is a number, not a function. So asking if the integral is analytic in the upper/lower half-plane doesn't seem to make much sense. If you want to consider the function all of whose values are equal to the contour integral, then this is just a constant function and is obviously analytic on the upper and lower half-plane.
So, unless your question is about trivialities, I think you need to be more precise. |
| Dec2-11, 11:52 AM | #5 |
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| Dec2-11, 11:57 AM | #6 |
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Well, exp(ikz) is entire and therefore analytic on the whole plane. If we divide the power series of exp(ikz) by z, we see that exp(ikz)/z has a simple pole at k = 0 but is well-defined everywhere else. Which means that our series expansion for exp(ikz)/z is valid on the upper half-plane.
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| Dec2-11, 11:59 AM | #7 |
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Why we close counture in upper half plane for k>0?
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| Dec2-11, 12:01 PM | #8 |
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What do you mean by 'close counture'?
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| Dec2-11, 12:05 PM | #9 |
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When we calculate integral which I wrote we use contour in upper half plane for k>0. Why?
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| Dec2-11, 12:13 PM | #10 |
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I do not know why you would choose to do this. Since the contour will be chosen over a closed curve and since exp(ikz)/z is analytic in the upper half-plane, this means if we integrate along any closed curve which lies entirely in the upper half-plane, the integral will necessarily be zero.
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| Dec2-11, 12:53 PM | #11 |
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I will also take a small conture around zero.
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| Dec2-11, 01:24 PM | #12 |
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Understand now?
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| Dec2-11, 01:32 PM | #13 |
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I want to calculate integral [tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\frac{sinkx}{x}[/tex] use integration which I wrote. Why for k>0 in upper plane? Tnx.
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| Dec2-11, 03:25 PM | #14 |
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Ah! That is not a contour in the upper half-plane; the upper half-plane excludes the real axis. And you take the integral that way because you know exp(ikz)/z is analytic everywhere except 0 and there is a theorem that involves evaluating real integrals using complex integrals like the one you have.
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| Dec2-11, 05:20 PM | #15 |
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[tex]e^{ikz}[/tex] for [itex]z=Re^{it}[/itex] thats: [tex]e^{ikR(\cos(t)+i\sin(t))}[/tex] Now consider it's absolute value: [tex]e^{-kR\sin(t)}[/tex] In the upper half-plane, sine is positive so that will tend to zero for k>0. And if k<0, they we'd have to divert the contour to the lower half-plane because then sin(t)<0. |
| Dec4-11, 06:10 AM | #16 |
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Thanks mate. Sorry again. Is there some easy way to see that that integral will go to zero? When you see
[tex]\oint\frac{e^{ikz}}{z}[/tex]? |
| Dec4-11, 07:13 AM | #17 |
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[tex]\mathop\oint\limits_{|z|=1} \frac{e^{ikz}}{z}dz[/tex] that's really clear or in the other case: [tex]\mathop\oint\limits_{D} \frac{e^{ikz}}{z}dz[/tex] then clearly specify in the text what D is. In regards to you question about the integral over the upper half-disc around the semi-circle, well, you just need to plug it all in and analyze it to see what happens as R goes to infinity. |
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