Solving the Tidal Force Problem

  • Thread starter Thread starter matpo39
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Force Tidal
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the tidal force problem, specifically calculating the tidal force \( F_{tid} \) on a mass \( m \) at position \( P \) using the formula \( F_{tid} = -G M m \left( \frac{\hat{d}}{d^2} - \frac{\hat{d_0}}{d_0^2} \right) \). The participants utilize the binomial approximation to express \( d \) as \( d_0(1 - R/d_0) \) and derive the final expression for \( F_{tid} \) as \( -\frac{2G M m R}{d_0^3} \hat{x} \). The discussion highlights the complexity of handling unit vectors and the necessity of binomial expansion for accurate calculations.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of gravitational forces and Newton's law of gravitation
  • Familiarity with binomial expansion and its applications
  • Knowledge of vector notation and unit vectors in physics
  • Basic principles of classical mechanics, particularly tidal forces
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the binomial approximation in detail, focusing on its applications in physics
  • Learn about gravitational interactions and tidal forces in celestial mechanics
  • Explore vector calculus, particularly operations involving unit vectors
  • Review classical mechanics texts, such as "Classical Mechanics" by Barger and Olsson, for deeper insights
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in physics, particularly those studying gravitational forces, celestial mechanics, or anyone involved in advanced mechanics problems requiring a solid understanding of tidal forces and vector calculus.

matpo39
Messages
40
Reaction score
0
I am having a little trouble with this problem it is as follows:

consider the tidal force #(F_tid=-G*M*m[(d_unit vector/d^2)-(d_0 unit vector/d_0^2)]) on a mass m at the position P. write d as (d_0-R(radius of earth))=d_0*(1-R/d_0) and use binomial approximation to show that F_tid= -(2*G*M*m*R/d_0^3)x_unit vector.

sorry i can't get the picture up but all it is is the Earth with center at (0,0) and point P is located all the way to the left edge of the Earth on the x-axis and and 0 on the y axis. the moon is to the left of the Earth and is also on the x axis. which is why it is easy to see that the force will be in the -x direction.

first i used the binomial expansion and got d_0(1+2*R/d_0) and i replaced d in equation # with that value anf got this

-G*M*m[d_unit vector/(d_0(1+2R/d_0))^2 - d_0_unit vector/(d_0^2)]
I have been fiddleing with it all day and can't get it to match the force they said it should, I am pretty sure that my problem is coming from not really knowing how to handle the d,d_0 unit vectors.

thanks for the help
 
Physics news on Phys.org
matpo39 said:
I am having a little trouble with this problem it is as follows:

consider the tidal force #(F_tid=-G*M*m[(d_unit vector/d^2)-(d_0 unit vector/d_0^2)]) on a mass m at the position P. write d as (d_0-R(radius of earth))=d_0*(1-R/d_0) and use binomial approximation to show that F_tid= -(2*G*M*m*R/d_0^3)x_unit vector.
I gather that the question is asking you to determine:

[tex]F_{tide}=-GMm(\frac{\hat d}{d^2} - \frac{\hat d_0}{d_0^2})[/tex]

which can be rewritten:

[tex]F_{tide}=-GMm(\hat d\frac{d}{d^3} - \hat d_0\frac{|\vec d - \vec R|}{|\vec d - \vec R|^3})[/tex]

I can see why you are having problems. That denominator [itex]|\vec d-\vec R|^3[/itex] is messy and requires a complicated binomial expansion to solve. I had to look up the derivation in a mechanics text - Barger and Olsson, Classical Mechanics (First ed.) at pages 268-270 - it is not trivial to find the general solution. For the situation where d and d0 are colinear, it reduces to:

[tex]F_{tide}=-GMm\hat d(\frac{d}{d^3} - \frac{d - R}{(d - R)^3})[/tex]

But its still a lot of work.But you can see that the numerator is the order of R and the denominator in the order of d^3.

AM
 
Last edited:


Hi there,

I understand that you are having some difficulty solving the tidal force problem. I will try my best to explain the solution in a step-by-step manner.

Firstly, let's rewrite the expression for d as d = d_0(1-R/d_0). This is just a rearrangement of the given expression.

Next, let's expand the binomial term (1-R/d_0)^2 using the binomial expansion formula. This gives us 1 - 2R/d_0 + (R/d_0)^2.

Now, let's plug this expanded expression into our original expression for tidal force:

F_tid = -G*M*m[(d_unit vector/d^2) - (d_0 unit vector/d_0^2)]
= -G*M*m[(d_unit vector/(d_0(1-R/d_0))^2) - (d_0_unit vector/(d_0^2))]
= -G*M*m[d_unit vector/(d_0^2(1 - 2R/d_0 + (R/d_0)^2)) - (d_0_unit vector/(d_0^2))]
= -G*M*m[d_unit vector/(d_0^2 - 2Rd_0 + R^2) - (d_0_unit vector/(d_0^2))]
= -G*M*m[d_unit vector/(d_0^2) - 2Rd_0_unit vector/(d_0^2) + R^2_unit vector/(d_0^2) - d_0_unit vector/(d_0^2)]
= -G*M*m[(d_unit vector - 2Rd_0_unit vector + R^2_unit vector - d_0_unit vector)/(d_0^2)]

Now, we can simplify the expression in the brackets by grouping similar unit vectors together:

(d_unit vector - 2Rd_0_unit vector + R^2_unit vector - d_0_unit vector) = (d_unit vector - d_0_unit vector) - 2R(d_0_unit vector) + R^2_unit vector
= (d_unit vector - d_0_unit vector) - (2Rd_0_unit vector - R^2_unit vector)
= (d_unit vector - d_0_unit vector) - R(2d_0_unit vector - R_unit vector)

Note that
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K