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Why does b^(m/n) = sqrt(n,m)? |
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| Oct2-03, 04:37 PM | #1 |
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Why does b^(m/n) = sqrt(n,m)?
Hi, as the subject says, why does b^(m/n) = (n√b)^m?
I don't understand how you can multiply a number by itself less than one times. Thanks. EDIT: Finally GOT IT RIGHT. |
| Oct2-03, 04:58 PM | #2 |
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b^(m/n)= n(b^m) "the nth root of b to the m power"
you could also write (nb)^m Aaron |
| Oct2-03, 05:04 PM | #3 |
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I meant that but I was just thinking about too many things. It's been fixed. I'm asking for an explanation of why that is true.
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| Oct2-03, 07:32 PM | #4 |
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Why does b^(m/n) = sqrt(n,m)? |
| Oct3-03, 06:26 AM | #5 |
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The stupid errors just keep piling up don't they!
I take it you mean: "Why is bm/n= n &radic (b)m?" Let's start with "I don't understand how you can multiply a number by itself less than one times." You can't. bn is defined as "multiply b by itself n times" only if n is a positive integer (counting number). However, in that simple situation, we quickly derive the very useful "laws of exponents": bmbn= bm+n and (bm)n= bnm. We then define bx for other number so that those laws remain true. For example, IF the laws of exponents are to be true for x= 0, then we must have bn= bn+0= bnb0. As long as b is not 0 we can divide both sides of the equation by bn to bet b0= 1. That is, we MUST define b0= 1 or the laws of exponents will no longer hold. Now we can see that bn+(-n)= b0= 1. If the laws of exponents are to hold for negative exponents as well, we must have bnb-n= bn+(-n)= 1 or, again dividing both sides of the equation by bn, b-n= 1/bn. Finally, if (bm)n= bmn is to be true for all numbers, we must have (b1/m)m= b1= b. Since n &radic (b) is define as "the positive number whose nth power is b, we must define b1/m= m &radic (b). |
| Oct3-03, 03:35 PM | #6 |
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Thanks HallsOfIvy, your explanation was very clear.
And yes, the errors kept piling up! I have fixed everything but the subject (I don't believe it can be changed. Am I wrong?) so if anyone wants to read it in the future it should make sense. |
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