Limit of Sum as n Approaches Infinity: 1/n * sqrt(1-i^2/n^2) = 0

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the limit of a sum as n approaches infinity, specifically the expression 1/n * sqrt(1-i^2/n^2). Participants explore whether this limit equals zero and its connection to Riemann sums and integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests a demonstration that the limit equals zero, expressing uncertainty about formal methods.
  • Another participant argues that the expression inside the square root approaches zero as n increases, suggesting that the limit should be zero.
  • A different participant challenges this by stating that the limit is actually related to a Riemann sum, asserting that it equals π/4 based on their calculations.
  • Further clarification is provided that the 1/n can be factored out of the summation, reinforcing the connection to the integral of sqrt(1-x^2) over the interval [0, 1].
  • One participant acknowledges their misunderstanding of the limit and admits to being incorrect in their initial assertion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the limit's value, with some asserting it approaches zero while others claim it converges to π/4. No consensus is reached on the correct interpretation of the limit.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved assumptions regarding the treatment of the limit and the summation, particularly in relation to the Riemann sum interpretation.

mprm86
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Please show that:

limit when n goes to infinity of the sum from i=1 to n of 1/n * sqrt(1-i^2/n^2) equals to zero.

Sorry, i haven't learned yet to use that Tex thing.
 
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mprm86 said:
Please show that:

limit when n goes to infinity of the sum from i=1 to n of 1/n * sqrt(1-i^2/n^2) equals to zero.

Sorry, i haven't learned yet to use that Tex thing.

Not sure of the formal way, but here is what I get.

The inside of the sqrt goes to zero because n^2 goes to infinity, making the interior go to zero. 0/n as n -> infinity is still 0.
 
Yes,but it's an infinite sume of "zero-s"...Are us sure you're referring to

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\left( \frac{1}{n}\cdot\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sqrt{1-\frac{i^{2}}{n^{2}}}\right)[/tex]

My maple says it's [tex]\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]...

Daniel.
 
It is.I'm a genius.That limit (together with the sum) can be put in connection to the Riemann sum of the integral (it actually is)

[tex]I=:\int_{0}^{1}\sqrt{1-x^{2}} \ dx =\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]...

You must be talking about something else...

Daniel.
 
dextercioby said:
Yes,but it's an infinite sume of "zero-s"...Are us sure you're referring to

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\left( \frac{1}{n}\cdot\sum_{i=1}^{n}\sqrt{1-\frac{i^{2}}{n^{2}}}\right)[/tex]

My maple says it's [tex]\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]...

Daniel.

I think the 1/n is inside the summation, but I am not totally sure. Can we get clarity from the thread starter.
 
You can take the [tex]\frac{1}{n}[/tex] out of the summation because it doesn't depend on [tex]i[/tex]. As stated above by Daniel,

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left(\sum_{i=1}^n \left[\frac{1}{n} \sqrt{1 - \frac{i^2}{n^2}}\right]\right) = \int_0^1 \sqrt{1-x^2} \ dx = \frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]

Here [tex]\frac{1}{n}[/tex] is the width [tex]\Delta x[/tex] of the intervals in the Riemann sum, and [tex]\frac{i}{n}[/tex] is the [tex]x_i^*[/tex] (and you will note that it is indeed always in the appropriate interval).
 
Last edited:
Ah, my bad.

I don't really deal with limits like that, so I was basing what I said on what I know.

I was wrong though.
 

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