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simple limit question |
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| Apr12-05, 01:39 AM | #1 |
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simple limit question
How do I show that [tex] \mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \left( {n!!} \right)^{\left( {n^{ - n} } \right)} = 1 [/tex] ?
(The n^-n forces the value to decrease faster than n!! increases, I believe. But how to work out that?) |
| Apr12-05, 03:13 AM | #2 |
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1)Firstly we'll let the expression (n!!)^(n^-n)=y, then taking ln on both sides give,
lny=ln(n!!)/n^n. 2) We'll then find the limit of the expression at the RHS using Le Hopital's rule or by observation that n^n increases faster than ln(n!!). =) 3) After finding the limit, L, all we have to do is substitute back the value of y, which is e^L |
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