Wavefunction expansion coefficients

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating the wavefunction expansion coefficients for an electron in a one-dimensional box, specifically using the framework outlined in Liboff's "Quantum Mechanics" (4th Edition). The user derives the coefficients \( a_n \) for the wavefunction \( \psi(x) \) and questions the physical equivalence of two different representations of the wavefunction. Patrick clarifies that while the square of the wavefunction may yield the same probability density, it does not imply that the states are physically identical, as different measurements (e.g., momentum) can yield different results. The key takeaway is the importance of Fourier coefficients in determining the physical state of the system.

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  • Understanding of wavefunctions in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with Fourier series and expansion coefficients
  • Knowledge of eigenstates and Hamiltonians in quantum systems
  • Basic principles of quantum measurement theory
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I'm working in Liboff, 4e, QM, page 114, problem 4.35.
An electron in a 1-D box with walls at x= 0,a is in the state [tex]\psi(x) = A[/tex] for [tex]x\in (0,a/2)[/tex] and [tex]\psi(x) = -A[/tex] for [tex]x\in (a/2,a)[/tex]. What is the lowest possible energy that can be measured?

From my understanding, the answer to this question will be the integer of first nonzero coefficient in the expansion [tex]\psi = \Sigma \limits_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n \phi_n[/tex], where [tex]\phi_n = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a})[/tex] are the basis functions given in eq (4.15) from the book (the eigenstates for the 1D box Hamiltonian). I do this and I get [tex]a_n = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{n\pi}(1+\cos(n\pi) - 2\cos(n\pi/2))[/tex]. Now correct me if I'm wrong, but is it not true that [tex]\psi(x)=A[/tex] for [tex]x\in (0,a)[/tex] represents the same state since only the square of the wavefunction is given significance? In that case, however, I get [tex]a_n=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{n\pi}(1-\cos(n\pi))[/tex]. It is my understanding that [tex]a_n^2[/tex] represents the probability of measuring the particle to be in the state [tex]\phi_n[/tex]. But in these two cases, we will get different [tex]a_n^2[/tex] indicating that the two states are physically different.

Can anyone point out my mistake?
 
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Advice:read more on Fourier series.U could see post #5 from here https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=571801#post571801 which deals exactly with a function of type [itex]\psi[/itex] in your problem.

Your problem should reduce to the question:does the fundamental state [itex]\phi_{1}[/itex]-which has the lowest possible energy-have a nonzero probability ...?

U'll need to compute the Fourier coefficients of that wavefunction (whose sq.moduli give probabilities),so that's why i advised you to read.

Daniel.
 
nd said:
Now correct me if I'm wrong, but is it not true that [tex]\psi(x)=A[/tex] for [tex]x\in (0,a)[/tex] represents the same state since only the square of the wavefunction is given significance?

No, that is not true. It is not because |psi1|^2 = |psi2|^2 that psi1 and psi2 represent the same physical states. In order for two descriptions A and B to represent the same physical state, you have to have that ALL POSSIBLE measurements cannot make any difference. |psi1| = |psi2| only means that all possible POSITION measurements cannot make a difference. But a momentum measurement can, for instance.

cheers,
Patrick.
 

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