What is sin x when x tends to infinity?

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    Infinity Sin
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the behavior of the sine function as the variable x approaches infinity. Participants explore whether sin x converges to a specific value or remains undefined due to its periodic nature.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the value of sin x as x tends to infinity, suggesting possible answers of 1, -1, or 0 due to the periodic nature of the sine function.
  • Another participant asserts that sin x is undefined as it does not converge to any limit, emphasizing its periodic character and providing a mathematical argument based on the definition of limits at infinity.
  • A participant provides a specific proof structure to demonstrate that sin x does not converge, using the concept of epsilon and showing that for any chosen x0, there exists an x greater than x0 where the sine function does not satisfy convergence criteria.
  • There is a discussion about the clarity of mathematical notation, specifically regarding the use of the symbol \geq in the context of the proof.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether sin x has a limit as x approaches infinity. While one participant argues for the undefined nature of the limit, another suggests possible values, indicating a lack of consensus.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes mathematical reasoning that relies on the definitions of limits and periodic functions, with some participants clarifying the conditions under which convergence is assessed.

misogynisticfeminist
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This question popped up in my head. What is sin x when x tends to infinity? Since sine is a preiodic functions which repeats itself, is the answer 1, -1 or 0 or something else altogether?
 
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It is undefined; there is no limit! Sin[x] does not converge to any value as x increases - it maintains its periodic character. Limits only apply when something converges to something somewhere.

A proof is readily constructed from the def. of limits at [tex]\mbox{$\infty$}[/tex]. Choose a small [tex]\mbox{$\epsilon$}[/tex] ("1"is small enough) and show that for any x0, no matter how large, there exists an x>x0 such that

[tex]\|f(x)-f(x_0)\|\geq\epsilon[/tex].​

Plug in [tex]\mbox{$\epsilon=1$}[/tex] and [tex]\mbox{$x=x_0+\frac{\pi}{2}$}[/tex].

What you show is that is not convergent, thus there is no limit.

Hey, does anyone know a better way to do inline LaTeX here?
 
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It looks good to me until [itex]\geq[/itex].

Daniel.
 
dextercioby said:
It looks good to me until [itex]\geq[/itex].

Daniel.

What's wrong with [itex]\geq[/itex]? You want to show that [itex]\|f(x)-f(x_0)\|<\epsilon[/itex] does not hold for all [itex]x>x_0[/itex], so you find an [itex]x[/itex] where the relation is [itex]\geq[/itex] instead of [itex]<[/itex].
 

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