Recent content by aaa

Thanks for the reply. But my doubt is not about rigged Hilbert spaces. Let me try to rephrase the question: When can an eigenket |λ1λ2> be considered to be equivalent to the ket |λ1>|λ2>? For example, the simultaneous eigenkate of cartesian X and Y operators, |xy>, can be equivalently written as...

Under what conditions is the common eigenspace of two commuting hermitian operators isomorphic to the direct product of their individual eigenspaces? As I'm not being able to precisely phrase my doubt, consider this example: Hilbert space of a two dimensional particle is the direct product of...