Recent content by alianna

So would you be able to say: Since a^(m+n)=a^(m)a^(n). Then this implies that: a^(m+n+1)= a^(m+1+n)= a^(m+1)a^(n)? This doesn't seem right because we are assuming what we are trying to prove. Why are you allowed to show for m+1 but don't have to for n+1 or do you just assume since m+1 works...

Yes we just went over it but i wasn't sure how to go about induction with m and n being integers...

Let a be a nonzero number and m and n be integers. Prove the following equality. a^(m+n)=a^(m)a^(n) Im not really sure what direction to go in. I am not sure if I need to show for n positive and negative separately or is there an easier way. My attempt/ideas: When n>0: a^(m)a^(n)=...