Recent content by atomthick

Because scientist are curious beings which are more concerned with how it is done than they are with who is doing it. The question is can they find a way to do it themselves and control it?

0/0 means that you don't have enough information about the problem. It's like trying to solve a system of 2 equations by using only one of the equations. I will give you an example to understand what I mean. Consider a iron tube with length L, the tube is filled so you can't see through it...

Another proof would be to think of function fk as being the probability to pick a natural number that has a factor among all the prime numbers except the first k prime numbers. f0 = 1, the probability to pick a number that has a factor among all primes is 1 f1 = f0 - f0/p1, the probability to...

Yes, F will call again F and it will never stop. It will do this forever.

The answer to your last question is yes for the first function. The second function is not defined in 0.

It's not solved it just uses the zeros on the critical line. This doesn't prove there aren't any other zeros with the real part < 1/2

It would be funny if from all the proved theorems that use RH we can select a group of them and say: "These theorems can't be all true at the same time unless RH is true".

I don't think gravity has something to do with it. For example in your question the ball can't get through the double slit unless you move the wall very close to the ball (because the ball has a very short wave length therefore it's localized in a very short range of space). If gravity was to...

I believe no one can tell you how exactly are the particles moving. There are formulas for the interference of the associated probabilities based on the observed interaction between particles. The asociated probabilities (which happens to have a wave formula) combine each other in such a way...

The explanation is simple. There are no waves there are just particles. Waves are something that was mathematically derived from observation (experiments) like Maxwells equations. In reality the waves are just probability distributions of how particles interact with each other. Waves are not...

I can see you imagine the associated wave spanning at infinity. It's not. A short wave length means the particle (ball) is "highly" localized. If the wave length was bigger let's say 1 meter it meant the particle (ball) could be found anyware on 1 meter radius.

Why are you using p=0? You shoud instead use f = E/h, E = mc2, l = 1/f

You are asking a question about QM and yet you formulate the paradox with a ball. The wavelength of the ball is incredibly small this is why you will never see it behave like a wave.

Try the Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT). This will give you the harmonics you need for your discrete dataset.

Do you want to do it by hand?