Recent content by bogdan

Well...I'm interested in the stimulation of growth of plants...especially if there are any studies about pulsed lasers at low frequency ( 5Hz-20KHz ), with wavelengths that stimulate photosynthesis ...the wavelength doesn't matter too much...I just want pulsed lasers that stimulate plants to...

I'm interested in anything you have...links...sugestions...ideas about this field...

It seems I was wrong...at least I tried... And you just let me say all these foolish things ? Without putting forward any valid argument ? (I still have to check my statements...) My apologies...

Let's take x=p/q; p,q - integers; q<>0; For n=2q we have n!x=(2q-1)!*2q*p/q=(2q-1)!*2p which is an even number...so...for n large enough the product is an even number of pi's... I didn't say that was a number less then one...it's a sequence (or whatever it's called)...it's not fixed...n still...

The only problem is that you don't know how "less than one" the cosine is...it's not a "fixed" number... And...why should be there 2m ? (the cosine can't be -1 for n large enough...n!x -> even) The best thing is that you reduced it to irrational numbers... That's what I think of your...

Ok...you are both right... but i believe you are still wrong about the problem... about taking those limits separately... And what kind of medication is there for my condition ? HallsofIvy...I did not attack your person...but a statement...so...please...at least the idea I was trying to...

That argument will never be an integer multiple of pi...maybe it will come close enough to it...so that sin->0...anyway...I don't think the limits should be taken separately...not first lim m and then lim n...but at the same time... I don't know if this helps anyone so I'll stop here...:)...

What tends to infinity ? I know sin*sin is between 0 and 1...but for the argument n!*pi*x i hope it (sin*sin) tends to 0... something like n!*pi*x tends to an even multiple of pi for n great enough...so that sin*sin -> 0...that's maybe why it's 2*m...not only m...

Here's an idea... cos(n!*pi*x)^(2*m)=[cos(n!*pi*x)^2]^m=[1-sin(n!*pi*x)^2]^m... if only one could prove that sin(n!*pi*x)^2 -> 0 as n -> infinity...it would be quite simple from here...it's "classical" (1-1/u)^u where u->infinity... ? did help ?

Sorry to disturb...but nothing happens to a number between -1 and 1 raised to higher and higher powers...think of e=(1-1/n)^n...(sorry i can't help anymore...)

Sorry for the interruption...but F=ma is valid only in classical physics...F=dp/dt is correct in general...I think...

This is the answer... http://www.astrohoroscopes.com/puzzles/logic/einsteinquizanswer.html

Okay...I'll think about it...

Aaaa...and for that probability problem...the first on the 3rd page...with x and y pennies... P(x)=x/(x+y)...P(x)->the probability that the player with x pennies wins... P(y)=y/(x+y)...P(y)->... Proof ? Somesort of recursivity...too long to be written here...

Are you sure that c is incorrect ? Remember:the balloon is attached to the floor...not to a weight that floats in the air and is attached to the floor by a string...soooo...why should c be incorrect ? If it was attached to a weight than it should move forward... And why do you think that the...