Recent content by candyduz

I tried to approximate normal to binomial and out of groups of 20 flips, for the first set, I got 10, 6, 9, 8, 8, 11, 11, 10, 9, 11 "0"s and for the second set, I got 12, 9, 9, 9, 10, 12, 10, 12, 11, 11 "0"s. Am I on the right track?

I was wondering if it's something to do with normal distribution or central limit theorem but honestly, I have no idea at all on how to solve this question

Which of the following is more likely to be generated using independent random flips? Explain. Pls help! Thanks!