Comparing Independent Random Flips: Normal vs. Binomial Distribution

candyduz
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Which of the following is more likely to be generated using independent random flips? Explain.


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Pls help! Thanks!
 
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What have you tried?

Where are you stuck?
 
I was wondering if it's something to do with normal distribution or central limit theorem but honestly, I have no idea at all on how to solve this question
 
I tried to approximate normal to binomial and out of groups of 20 flips, for the first set, I got 10, 6, 9, 8, 8, 11, 11, 10, 9, 11 "0"s and for the second set, I got 12, 9, 9, 9, 10, 12, 10, 12, 11, 11 "0"s.

Am I on the right track?
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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