Recent content by d86

i just got confused by why the equation looked different from the regular plane equation. i see that it's the same thing now. the book does refer to f_{x} and f_{y} as slopes tho.

i see so as long as the slopes of two intersecting lines are known, the plane they are on can be defined that way w/o going through the cross product?

For tangent plane equation z-z0 = f{x}(x0,y0)(x-x0) + f{y}(x0,y0)(y-y0) how come there is no cross product of the partial derivatives f{x} X f{y} to give the normal vector for the plane?