Tangent plane to a surface, no need for cross product?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of tangent planes to surfaces in multivariable calculus, specifically questioning the necessity of using the cross product of partial derivatives to find the normal vector of the plane.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the relationship between the tangent plane equation and the normal vector, questioning why the cross product is not explicitly used in the equation. Some discuss the parameterization of the surface and how it relates to the normal vector derived from the partial derivatives.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the concepts, with some clarifying their understanding of the tangent plane equation and its components. There is recognition that the normal vector can be derived from the parameterization without explicitly using the cross product, leading to a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of terminology differences, such as the use of "slopes" in reference to partial derivatives, which may lead to confusion in the context of three-dimensional geometry.

d86
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For tangent plane equation
z-z0 = f{x}(x0,y0)(x-x0) + f{y}(x0,y0)(y-y0)

how come there is no cross product of the partial derivatives f{x} X f{y} to give the normal vector for the plane?
 
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d86 said:
For tangent plane equation
z-z0 = f{x}(x0,y0)(x-x0) + f{y}(x0,y0)(y-y0)

how come there is no cross product of the partial derivatives f{x} X f{y} to give the normal vector for the plane?

The cross product is already built in. If you parametrize the surface as x = x, y = y, z = f(x,y) you have the parameterization

R(x,y) = < x, y, f(x,y)>

Then Rx = < 1, 0, fx>
Ry = <0, 1, fy>

n = Rx X Ry= <-fx, -fy, 1> or you can change the signs <fx, fy, -1>.

Using that normal and the point (x0,y0,z0> gives you the same equation you have.
 
i see
so as long as the slopes of two intersecting lines are known, the plane they are on can be defined that way w/o going through the cross product?
 
d86 said:
i see
so as long as the slopes of two intersecting lines are known, the plane they are on can be defined that way w/o going through the cross product?

In 3D we don't talk about "slopes", only directions. But I don't see what you are getting at with this comment. You would get the normal by crossing the two direction vectors.
 
i just got confused by why the equation looked different from the regular plane equation. i see that it's the same thing now. the book does refer to f_{x} and f_{y} as slopes tho.
 
d86 said:
i just got confused by why the equation looked different from the regular plane equation. i see that it's the same thing now. the book does refer to f_{x} and f_{y} as slopes tho.

Yes. The partials represent the slope of a two variable function where you hold the other variable constant. They are sometimes called "the slope in the x or y direction". Still, for a general straight line in 3-space, you wouldn't use the term slope.
 

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