Okay thank you very much! This was the advice I was looking for. For future notice, should I assume that when I need to minimize an integral that has dy/dx in it, I should be looking out to use Euler-Lagrange equation? (Apologies again if its a silly question)
Homework Statement
This problem comes from a practice test that I am reviewing before my final. My main confusion comes from the mathematical implication of the integral being an extremum. The first two parameters are y(x=0) = 0 and y(x = π/2) = 1. The third says the integral from 0 to 1 of...