First, I am aware that magnetic monopoles are only theorized particles. I've been thinking about how to describe what I am doing, and I'm thinking that there should be a kind of symmetry between electric and magnetic behavior. The mention of the Biot-Savart Law actually relates to one symmetry...
For electric charges the relation is ##F=k\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}##, where ##k=\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}##. It seems to me that for the (hypothesized) magnetic monopole one could write an equivalent ##F=n\frac{p_1p_2}{r^2}##. I have replaced the q's with p's for "pole strength", and k with n --...
I'm wondering if there is a way to mathematically define these terms without essentially physically pointing at something.
I'm not even sure it is possible to do with physics, even if one assumes the matter dominance of the universe. One is tempted to think that one could define it...